Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 02.07.2025 13:49

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

There's no rule.

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You'll usually find your answer there.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

As a NATO/Ukraine supporter, since you're so blown away and angered by Trump putting Zelensky in his place yesterday, why don't you support the Ukraine by joining the Ukrainian army? There's 200,000,000+ of you. Put your money where your mouths are.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

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If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.